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Shakespeare Was The Biggest Thief In History!
How could any intelligent person believe Shakespeare wrote all those sonnets and plays? When there is no evidence whatsoever of him even attending school. Any school for that matter! It doesn't take a genius to work out there's something amiss about this Shakespeare must have stolen the works attributed to him?
 joe9  02 Jul 2008 08:29
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I think you're right on this and that he stole some of the works that he claimed to have created, but I really don't have enough evidence to be rock solid on this debate.
 
 mastermov  03 Jul 2008 15:25
 1 Comment
 
 Then let's find out for sure! You are the one who wants to enlighten humanity. I could possibly be wrong, then it would be the blind leading the blind. And, I wouldn't like to fall into a pit with a dunderhead who's not sure!!
by  joe9
 06 Jul 2008 21:22
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I'm going to take a wild stab in the dark here. And I may be wrong. But:

1. Same username style
2. Same argument, absolutely identical
3. Same writing style

Same person? If this is a sock puppet made for the purposes of backing yourself up then please desist.

EDIT: Curses! This was meant to be a comment.
 
 Quincel  02 Jul 2008 10:08
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 The evidence is building, there are numerous well educated people out there who think Shakespeare could not have written all the works attributed to him! Some of his history plays have already been attributed to Christopher Marlowe. As I have stated Enoch Powell one of the greatest minds in British Politics believed that Shakespeare could not have been the author of his works, no single person could have completed the works. Therefore, he would have had to have been a master of arts, getting assistance from other playwrights, and fellows! Where did Shakespeare get his degree??? Being the most famous playwright of Elizabethan times it's obvious a school or college would boast about producing such a genius?
by  joe9
 02 Jul 2008 10:21
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I believe Shakespeare filched all the works attributed to him. The man had to be a literary genius, undoubtedly a renaissance polymath, evidentially supported by the names of 200 plants, 60 birds, 85 animals in vocabulary, had intimate acquaintances with foreign lands, new philosophies, enough medical knowledge to set himself up as a medical doctor, legal knowledge... A mastery of languages, dialects, court manners. Any school would have been proud to have produced such a fine figure of a man. Shakespeare was obviously a pseudonym for a learned Bard or he filched all the works attributed to him.
 
 Janz6  02 Jul 2008 09:51
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 The man would have had to have a Master of Arts Degree, in those days a Master of Arts was a person qualified to teach or be master of students in arts; as a doctor he would be qualified to teach theology, law, or medicine. How could Shakespeare be called a master playwright if he didn't have this qualification? Which school or more importantly college did he attend to earn his master's degree? There's no evidence of him attending school! Shakespeare even states Venus and Adonis was the first heir of his invention, when he presented it to the earl of southhampton. Who was the true bard behind this invention? or was Shakespeare a thief?
by  joe9
 02 Jul 2008 10:11
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I think there is reasonable doubt as to whether Shakespeare actually penned some or all of the writings attributed to him. However it seems plain to me that if he did put his name on the writings of others it was with the collaboration and cooperation of his co-author or authors. So the term thief does not apply.
Incidentally, I don’t think it is necessary or accurate to impugn the intelligence of someone just for disagreeing with you on the basis of evidence, I think you must admit, that is far from conclusive in any direction.
 
 finsch  03 Jul 2008 15:58
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A) History is so full of thieves, how can an entertainer be the biggest thief in history? B) I've heard theories about Bacon writing and using Shakespeare as a pen name but even if true that's not uncommon - lots have used pen names - and it isn't theft. C) If lots of different people were stolen from the styles would differ from work to work and there would be some record of complaints or pirated works. D) Saying the volume of works is proof of theft means nothing. Many artists are prolific. Michaelangelo designed and created many diverse things, are you going to say he must have stole them because look how many there are?
 
 Grenache  03 Jul 2008 13:47
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No one who has any real appreciation of the quality of verse could seriously entertain the idea that either Philip Sidney or Christopher Marlowe was Shakespeare. Shakespeare's verse is of a far higher quality. It's like saying that a minor composer like Franz Liszt might really have been a great composer like Beethoven.

The same is true of their dramatic qualities, except even more so. Marlowe's plays are regarded as dramatic laughing stocks, almost unperformable.

The only way you can make this argument is to say that some complete unknown, who never published any verse we know of, was the secret author. No author, whose verse is in the public domain, demonstrated anything approaching the quality of Shakespeare's work.
 
 Hidell  02 Jul 2008 22:35
 5 Comments
 
 The quality of verse is a valid issue in this debate, and I thank you for this point.

While I do not disput the fact that Philip Sidney's contrIbution to the naturalising of the classical metre in English verse is well known, (he was a member of the Areopegus, a club, which included Spenser, Fulke Greville, Dyer and others). Sadly, he died on the 22nd of September, 1586, (he recieved a fatal wound in the thigh). As he lay dying it is documented: he passed a cup of water to another injured comrade saying, 'thy necessity is greater than mine'. [Ref: The Oxford Companion of English Literature]. Due to the fact that Shakespeare's emergence as a major entity, (Writer, Venus and Adonis was published in 1593, the precise year of the British Spy, Marlowe's death), then it seems highly unlikely that the slipper would fit Sidney. Please excuse my pun.

Malowe was a master of blank bombastic verse, his verse finger print is evident throughout Shakespeare's reputed work, and to dispute the fact that Marlowe's verse is not on parr with Shakespeare's is illogical. It's like saying Einstein's theory of relativity is understandable by all at first glance, when in fact it was only understood by twelve adepts after it was first brought out. May I suggest you read the full works of Marlowe, and the Full works of Shakespeare, make a comparison, and get back to me with a new valuation. That's if you have not already read them and are trying to be facetiously witty? Marlowe's situation could be compared to Ovid's, (i.e. a British spy who changed his identity, and built for himself a monumental obelisk).
by  joe9
 03 Jul 2008 08:17
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He went to a school in Stratford-upon-Avon. And why is it so hard to believe? Terry Pratchet wrote loads of great books, granted there not English heritage worthy yet but they are bloody good. Do you also deny he wrote all his works?
 
 muin13  02 Jul 2008 19:57
 3 Comments
 
 Is there evidential documentation supporting your statement? Myself and thousands of others who have visited Stratford-upon-avon know of none. Never assume, it makes an ass of U, and not of ME!! The Theory that Shakespeare was not the writer of the works attributed to him, based upon the assumption that he did not posses the knowledge and culture exhibited in those works, was first put forward by Herbert Lawrence in 1769. No other writer was until William Henry Smith in 1857 said that there was one writer of that age capable of writing such supreme work and with the requisite knowledge of law and other subjects, and that was Sir Frances Bacon. In 1887 Ignatius Donnelly published The Great Cryptogram, which professed to show that cryptograms in the plays reveal Bacon as the undoubted author, and cryptographic method was further advanced by Sir Edward Durning-Lawrence and others. From the end of the 19th century other candidates have been proposed, including the the Distributish School of thought that assigns Shakespeare's work to seven writers. The latest to be suggested is Christopher Marlowe, who's timely death coincided with the immergence of Shakespeare.
by  joe9
 02 Jul 2008 20:04
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You give no evidence to support your theory lack of education means nothing a lot of famous writers were not educated. If shakesphere were alive he would sue you for slander and liable as you need to have evidence before making such a claim. So get some evidence and change my mind that is after all the point of debate. Till then no-one should agree with you.
 
 boy2girl31  02 Jul 2008 16:43
 6 Comments
 
 As you so cleverly pointed out dead men can't sue!! Simple explanation: Christopher Marlowe wrote a Poem called Hero and Leander, (which you might enjoy reading?), within this poem were the immortal lines:

"Dead sheperd, now I find your saw of might
'Who forever loved that loved not at first sight'.

In Shakespeare's play 'As you like it' Shakespeare has Touchstone utter these immortal lines. Therefore, Shakespeare is a Thief. Shakespeare stole these lines. This is Marlowe's Mighty Line', If you steal a little you might as well steal the lot! Education has a lot to do with it, as you will find out IF you care to read the aforementioned poem 'Hero and Leander'. And tell me what it is about?

I admire your tanacious approach. It was good to hear you researched Hero and Leander on the Internet. Well Done. However, due to the fact that Marlowe's translated lines were from the original by Musaeus, (a Greek Poet, who perhaps lived around A.D. 500), of which only 340 lines survive. It seems highly unlikely that Marlowe filched the line from Shakespeare. It is a well known fact that Shakespeare quietly filched this line. When a piece is written and when it is published are two different propositions. However, if you are saying Shakespeare wrote this at university before 1586, please state which? And I will concede.
by  joe9
 02 Jul 2008 17:40
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